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To: Always Right

u have told me 1000 times over that a VAT is completely different from your sales tax.

Just as I have told you a 1000 times that a VAT is imposed on all levels of production not just final retail sale. Thus the NRST is indeed different in that it does not impose burdens on businesses upstream from the retailer.

Now you tell me they are equivalent. I can't take you BS no more.

As Your Nightmare has repeatedly shown, the equvalence of a VAT to retail sales taxes is easily established and effects of rate on consumer behavior is readily separated from the effects of redtape imposed by the VAT system's propensity for complexity as many variant examples and their history abound not only in the EU, but around the developing world as well as a consequence of IMF meddling.

Plenty of material for an econometrician of Jorgenson's caliber to work with to derive base parameters for a retail sales tax as well as from numerous high rate single stage tax systems that have existed and been removed as EU and IMF imposed VATs were put in place.

519 posted on 02/16/2005 9:08:52 AM PST by ancient_geezer (Don't reform it, Replace it!!)
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To: ancient_geezer
Plenty of material for an econometrician of Jorgenson's caliber to work with to derive base parameters for a retail sales tax as well as from numerous high rate single stage tax systems that have existed and been removed as EU and IMF imposed VATs were put in place.
Are you suggesting Jorgenson used statistics from the EU or some other place to model the change to a NRST?

If so, prove it.
523 posted on 02/16/2005 9:11:40 AM PST by Your Nightmare
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