It is true that Jesus never specifically mentions homosexuality in the Gospels. However, he does speak of sexual impurity. In a 1st Century Jewish context, this indisputably would have included homosexuality, as well as adultery, incest and every other sexual sin mentioned in the Old Testament. The OT was Jesus' Bible, and the Gospels are clear that he knew it very well. He would have known how his audience would interpret the term "sexual impurity." If he had intended to exclude homosexuality from this category, he would have said so.
The word "homosexual" appears in the Bible!!
I have heard that argument before...that Jesus never mentioned homosexuality.
The Old Testament is clear about the sin of homosexuality. Is Jesus not God, in the flesh. Immanual, God with us.
Do these people think God and Jesus disagree about this issue? Are they up there, hashing it out?