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To: Dan Evans
Our Constitution, in Art VI, explicitly establishes that it cannot be ignored by any government entity.
-- Fed/State or local, ALL officials are pledged to support the US Constitution and its Amendments as the supreme Law of the Land.
Congress shall make no law" meant what it said, but did not mean that only Congress was so restricted.

The 10th made clear that States were also prohibited powers, among them the power to infringe on peoples RKBA's.
After the civil war, southern States were denying freed slaves the RKBA's, under the pretense that the BOR's did not apply. The 14th was ratified to end that controversy.

Where does it say the "Congress" means "the states"? The way I read Article VI is that the Constitution can not be over-ridden by state law and that any existing state law is subservient to the new Constitution.
Nowhere does it say the restrictions on Congress also apply to the states.

If you read ALL of Art VI, you will come to the part where ALL officials [including Congress], -- Fed & State, - "shall be bound by Oath" to support our Constitution.

The tenth amendment reserves rights not given to Congress and not prohibited to the states, to the people or the states.
I'm curious. Is this something that they are teaching in schools these days? -- that the original Constitutional restrictions on Congress also applied to the states?

I'm curious why you think it shouldn't be, as they always have. We fought a civil war to settle the issue, as a matter of fact.

203 posted on 01/26/2005 4:20:14 PM PST by jonestown ( A fanatic is a person who can't change his mind and won't change the subject." ~ Winston Churchill)
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To: jonestown
The 10th made clear that States were also prohibited powers, among them the power to infringe on peoples RKBA's.

Yes, this is true. That's because the 2nd amendment doesn't mention the States or Congress. It simply guarantees the right to keep and bear arms. But the 1st does specify Congress.

The founders spent days arguing and carefully choosing the words that went into the Constitution. Do you really think they would have been so sloppy as to have written "Congress" when they meant "Congress and the States"

If you read ALL of Art VI, you will come to the part where ALL officials [including Congress], -- Fed & State, - "shall be bound by Oath" to support our Constitution

Yes. True. But some provisions of the Constitution applied to Congress and some to the state.

I'm curious why you think it shouldn't be, as they always have. We fought a civil war to settle the issue, as a matter of fact.

A war does not change the meaning of what the founders originally intended. The Civil War was fought over the right of succession. In fact, the right of secession was assumed to be a given when the Constitution was ratified even though some states declared that they reserved the right to succeed when they ratified. A war may subjugate people, but it doesn't change the truth.

220 posted on 01/26/2005 5:29:46 PM PST by Dan Evans
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