Does the law apply to Muslims?Interesting question, which raises a couple of points:
1. Liberals traditionally absolve Muslims of all forms of misbehavior, including female subjugation, mutilation and murder.
2. Although publicly opposed to homosexuality, many Muslims (certainly Arab Muslims) grow up in a culture of secret but wide-spread boy-rape. So the fact is, the Mosques are already filled to the brim with practising homosexuals. The only question is, do they make that fact public.
I asked the question because if Mosques are not required to hire homosexuals for religious reasons, then Christian churches which are opposed to homosexuality on religious grounds shouldn't be required to hire homosexuals. On the principle that like things should be treated alike.
1. Liberals traditionally absolve Muslims of all forms of misbehavior, including female subjugation, mutilation and murder.
Only because they view women only as incubators all the rest of women were and are considered as over population problem. We're (sarcasm) expendable thus disposable.
Actually, as was once explained to me, in the twisted logic of their culture, only the person sodomized is considered to be homosexual, while the sodomizer is absolved and not tainted with the same label.