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To: orionblamblam

Why is it there wer emore abolitionist societies South of the Mason dixon than up North? And why don't the damyankees talk about the the free blacks who owned slaves?
or about the blacks who fought for the South.Or tell the truth about the numeration of slaves (three fifths?) My
understanding was that count was dreamed up by Yankees who feared a loss of power should the South count all
slaves as the South wanted to. Yankees didn't want slaves
counted at all.The three fifth solution was the compromise.


67 posted on 01/19/2005 10:45:42 AM PST by StonyBurk
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To: StonyBurk
Why is it there wer emore abolitionist societies South of the Mason dixon than up North?

The abolitionist movement was a North Eastern, Protestant movement. The printing and distribution of abolitionist material in the south was prohibited. Simply possessing a copy of "Uncle Tom's Cabin" was illegal in most of the south.

And why don't the damyankees talk about the the free blacks who owned slaves?

Even if this was true, it is irrelevant. Slavery is wrong, period. Whether North or South. The truth is this is a red herring designed to direct attention away from the main point - that being that Chattel slavery was a southern institution (isolated incidents elsewhere notwithstanding) and was the reason for the secession.

or about the blacks who fought for the South.

Largely myth built on a handful of cases.

Or tell the truth about the numeration of slaves (three fifths?) My understanding was that count was dreamed up by Yankees who feared a loss of power should the South count all slaves as the South wanted to. Yankees didn't want slaves counted at all.The three fifth solution was the compromise.

The South fought John Adams and the other anti-Slavery Northerners at the Constitutional convention for weeks when they wanted to abolish slavery then and there at the founding. Then, after they argued for weeks that slaves were "property" and not people, and convincing Adams 7 Co. that there would be no nation if he kept pushing the abolition of slavery, they had the gall to insist that their "property" count towards representation in congress.

The 3/5th of a person was yet another acquiescence to southern obstruction. They had no choice if they wanted a ratified Constitution.

69 posted on 01/19/2005 10:56:07 AM PST by NJ Neocon (Democracy is tyranny of the masses. It is three wolves and a sheep voting on what to have for dinner)
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To: StonyBurk

Because the victors write the history books.


75 posted on 01/19/2005 11:15:36 AM PST by BigCinBigD
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To: StonyBurk
Or tell the truth about the numeration of slaves (three fifths?)

3/5ths was a compromise. The South wanted slaves to be counted as 1 person even though they had no more rights than cattle. If you were going to count slaves as a whole person, you might as well have counted livestock since slaves had pretty much the same legal status.

The South did not want slaves counted out of any sense that slaves were human. They wanted them counted so as to pad the number of Southern members of Congress.

82 posted on 01/19/2005 11:26:19 AM PST by Modernman (What is moral is what you feel good after. - Ernest Hemingway)
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To: StonyBurk
Why is it there wer emore abolitionist societies South of the Mason dixon than up North?

Can you document that?

My understanding was that count was dreamed up by Yankees who feared a loss of power should the South count all slaves as the South wanted to. Yankees didn't want slaves counted at all.The three fifth solution was the compromise.

No, the North didn't want the slaves counted under the circumstances. Slaves were property, the southern owner no more considered his slave his equal as he considered is cow his equal. Slaves had no legal standing in southern society, did not vote, had to rights whatsoever. It was sheer hypocrisy on the part of the Southern delegation to insist that slaves count the same as a free person for the purpose of congressional representation. The 3/5th figure was a compromise.

86 posted on 01/19/2005 11:29:43 AM PST by Non-Sequitur
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