Like in the US, people in Canada have the right to agree to have a private, civil dispute (such as a contract dispute) resolved under pretty much any type of law they want.
In NYC, for example, there are Rabbinical courts that serve as arbitrators for members of the Orthodox communuity. Their decisions will generally be enforced by a regular court.
Please clarify this part for me if you can. Is it saying, they don't want Canadian law to have any say in this part of Sharia law, or this section of the Sharia...can...be part of Canadian laws?
I'm confused as to it's meaning or interruption .