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To: John Will
It is thought by most historians (although they avoid mentioning it for PC reasons) that Indo-Europeans ruled the middle east(like at least 4000 years ago) as they did India. But the caste system in India remained (with inevitable mixing) while the Semitic peoples (loose racial grouping that includes Arabs and Jews) appeared to have finally revolted with the advent of Islam.

As far as I am aware the Palestinians were originally an Indo-European tribe.

One has to be careful with mtDNA as this is indicative of line of mothers, one has to look at chromosomal DNA and determine genetic distance values for populations. I have looked at these and are about what you would expect if your read history. But it is certainly conceivable that Semitic people in the middle east have mixing with Sub-Saharan Africans over the years.

So in the end you have alot of mixing in the middle east over the years.

This subject is a little faux pas as the Germans went a little bit berserk with the advent of racial science. I see it finally coming back into vogue, that is great for historians. As the composition of existing populations can help figure out quandaries. Such as the English being very close to Frisian and Danish which seems to indicate that the Celtic Britons were pushed off the land or killed during the Anglo-Saxon invasions.
37 posted on 12/17/2004 5:58:07 PM PST by demecleze
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To: demecleze
Such as the English being very close to Frisian and Danish which seems to indicate that the Celtic Britons were pushed off the land or killed during the Anglo-Saxon invasions.

The latest evidence says not. It appears that the Celtic blood of Southern Britain still runs strong... Y Chromosomes Rewrite British History

44 posted on 12/18/2004 3:11:59 PM PST by Alas Babylon!
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To: demecleze
And here:

Y Chromosomes Sketch New Outline of British History

45 posted on 12/18/2004 3:13:37 PM PST by Alas Babylon!
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To: demecleze

"Good beer and good green cheese" is good English and good Fries.


50 posted on 12/18/2004 8:02:40 PM PST by Doctor Stochastic (Vegetabilisch = chaotisch is der Charakter der Modernen. - Friedrich Schlegel)
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To: demecleze
It is thought by most historians (although they avoid mentioning it for PC reasons) that Indo-Europeans ruled the middle east(like at least 4000 years ago) as they did India. But the caste system in India remained (with inevitable mixing) while the Semitic peoples (loose racial grouping that includes Arabs and Jews) appeared to have finally revolted with the advent of Islam.

As far as I am aware the Palestinians were originally an Indo-European tribe.

The Persians and Kurds are an Indo-European people -- their language is related, albeit distantly, to English. I think that the Phoenicians were Indo-European, as well. There were many Greek settlers in the eastern Mediterranean (and even further east) dating from after the conquests of Alexander the Great. Plus, huge numbers of Europeans somehow or another ended up as slaves of the Muslims.

54 posted on 12/18/2004 8:33:20 PM PST by Siamese Princess
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