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You need to define what you mean by a 1-8-3 power. In my mind, a 1-8-3 power is Congress using the power of the commerce clause to write some piece of legislation regulating commerce.

I believe you're saying that a 1-8-3 power is Congress using the power of the commerce clause to write some piece of legislation regulating intrastate commerce. Yes? No?

"Notice the SC reasons that if wheat producing farmers themselves were to not buy wheat, it would affect the national wheat market."

Yes. Each farmer had a quota. That quota assumed the farmer would buy his wheat on the open market.

I suppose the legislation could have been written differently, setting a smaller "to market" quota with an unlimited "for personal use" amount. But what about those farmers who had no use or desire for wheat? They wanted to grow and sell as much as they could.

The logic of the USSC in Wickard v Filburn makes perfect sense to those who look at the complete picture.

Those, like you, who choose to think of this case as 239 bushels will never understand.

Oh, by the way, our Mr. Filburn (who was being paid three times the world price per bushel for his wheat by the federal government) was allowed to produce and consume wheat in excess of his quota. He simply had to pay a small per-bushel penalty.