[R. Scott]

You use the old "lack of evidence isn't evidence of lack" argument. While true, insofar as that goes, it does not prove the positive assertion that he ever participated in homosexual activity.

It also can not be proven that he was not bisexual, so why is there the big flap? What difference does it make? History has recorded Alexander and most Greeks of the period as practicing bisexuality. It’s a bit late to rewrite it.

[Mr. Lucky]

History has recorded Alexander and most Greeks of the period as practicing homosexuals

History has done no such thing.

Do you have any contemporary source you can cite to back up this claim?.

[LexBaird]

History has recorded Alexander and most Greeks of the period as practicing bisexuality. It’s a bit late to rewrite it.

History has done no such thing, and no, "most Greeks" did not. Homosexualist revisionists are the ones actively rewriting history, through just such unsupported assumptions as you continue to make. If you are going to make such statements, be prepared to DOCUMENT your claim.

My advice is to automatically disbelieve anything put out by these agenda historians until they produce rigorous proof of whatever they write. This goes for the Afrocentrist, Historical Feminists, Multicultural Deconstructivists, or any other school of pseudo-pop "scholarship" currently in vogue. It is as much rubbish as the Victorian "Pinnacle of History" viewpoint it proposes to supplant.

[longtermmemmory]

There is no such evidence other than in the deluded minds of homoadvocates mistranslating the meaning of Greek words and pushing their own agenda for the last 50 years.

It was NEVER accepted. Athens, for example, had strict anti-soddomy laws. Get caught and you die. There was no acceptance of the behavior in modern or ancient terms.