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To: Huck
Didn't the Constitution say to count a black as 3/5s a person?

No, it counted a slave as 3/5 of a person. That's where Taney went wrong.

128 posted on 11/27/2004 8:04:57 AM PST by inquest (Now is the time to remove the leftist influence from the GOP. "Unity" can wait.)
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To: inquest; LWalk18
The slaves were negroes. Your making a semantic point. Dred Scott was a negro slave owned by someone. The Constitution clearly protects property rights, clearly rates slaves (such as Dred Scott) as less than a full person, and clearly protects the slave owners' right to own slaves. Isn't all that much obvious? Didn't it take an amendment to ban slavery? Nowawadays, we'd just have a court decide that slavery was unconstitutional all along, even though that's clearly untrue.

Isn't it strange that a woman's right to vote required amendment, but her right to abortion was discovered to exist already?

130 posted on 11/27/2004 8:14:18 AM PST by Huck (The day will come when liberals will complain that chess is too violent .)
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To: inquest

The Constitution does not use the word "slavery" until Amendment 13. In the original body euphemisms are used to refer to "slavery" or "slaves," such as "one bound to service or labor."


140 posted on 11/27/2004 11:18:57 AM PST by Theodore R.
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