That would be the one the Founders referred to [see #121].
Is their interpretation of Scripture infallible?
As you can see, it is composed only of scattered individuals who have been given to understand what freedom from the tyranny of men in religion and politics means.
Why should I be bound by the Founders' interpretation of Scripture? Is that in Scripture?
The point is, Jesus founded one Church (Mat. 16:19) with the power to "bind and loose," the Church which Scripture calls "the pillar and foundation of truth" (1 Tim 3:15). Implicit in Jesus' command to take our disputes "to the church" (Mat 18:17) are the following logical necessities.
Jesus would not send Christians to a church other than the one that He founded and of which He is the head (Eph 4:15) because the church that he founded is "the pillar and foundation of truth," and sending Christians elsewhere would contradict his nature as The Truth.
Secondly, the church spoken of must be a visible church, otherwise it would be impossible to find.
The Church spoken of must also possess a body of non-contradictory doctrine, otherwise it would be impossible for Christ's Church to definitively settle doctrinal disputes among Christians.
Additionally, if Jesus was speaking of various local churches promoting diverse doctrines, disputants could pick a church that would favor their particular argument. This would contradict Jesus' nature as The Truth (John 14:6) and Justice, his expressed desire that "they be one as We are one," (John 17:11) and the Scriptural description of the Church as "the pillar and foundation of truth" (1 Tim 3:15), besides making it impossible to settle disagreements, making His statement meaningless.
I'll give you a few hints. See if you are able to figure it out:
Scripture = "The Infallible Word of God"
The Infallible Word = "Jesus Christ"
[A true] Christian = "An indivdiual in whom The Infallible Word" [Jesus Christ] dwells.
Thats why The Infallible Word says this: 1 John 2:27