Posted on 10/28/2004 10:02:08 PM PDT by MrBallroom
I would like a definitive answer to this question...If the author is wrong he is discredited.
I'm afraid I can't direct you to one.
But I do recall the issue coming up in the immediate aftermath of the 2000 election. A rumor circulated that California wouldn't bother to count the absentee ballots, because they wouldn't affect the outcome (in that state).
It was soon dismissed, however, by sources who were in a position to know. Among them was Bill Jones, the Secretary of State and chief election official in California. Jones is a Republican.
Evidently it is standard practice for all ballots to be counted, even if they will not affect the outcome. The records require an accurate final total (for planning the next election, e.g.).
If the allegation is true, it nukes Democrats...If it is false it nukes the author.
BUMP for later reading
Janette? You want to write for my magazine as a guest columnist? Send me 750 words or so (preferably no more than that), stay on point, and I'll consider it for publication.
If you need my e-mail address, let me know and I'll send it to you privately.
I had never heard either way; if California had counted them; good.
The fact is, it does not eliminate the requirement for uniform balloting laws in all 50 states. No uniformity in balloting laws = no federal funding of any kind to the offending state. They did it with the 55 MPH speed limit in the 1970's and the 21 drinking age in the 1980's. They can and should do it again.
Yep. It is True. Every time someone has said to me that Gore won the popular vote, I have challenged them-How can you say that when so many ballots were not counted in Kalifornia and New York etc.?
Don't recall exactly, but pretty sure it was on one of our threads back then.
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