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To: RayStacy
From Article I, Section 8:

The Congress shall have Power...

To provide for calling forth the Militia to execute the Laws of the Union, suppress Insurrections and repel Invasions;

To provide for organizing, arming, and disciplining, the Militia, and for governing such Part of them as may be employed in the Service of the United States, reserving to the States respectively, the Appointment of the Officers, and the Authority of training the Militia according to the discipline prescribed by Congress;

The arming of the Militia is a power of Congress, if it so chooses.

In the matter of arming citizens, the role of States is defined by the underlined portion. IOW, the States have no authority to override a power delegated to Congress.

292 posted on 11/10/2004 11:57:27 AM PST by Ken H
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To: Ken H

You are 100 percent correct!!! But, telling the states how to handle their gun laws is not a power given to congress.


294 posted on 11/10/2004 12:03:17 PM PST by RayStacy
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To: Ken H

Sorry, I posted before finishing. This is ENTIRELY irrelevant to the conversation. The question is did the BOR apply to the states? If you can prove that another part of the cons outlaws gun restrictions, fine and beautiful, but having part X of the cons say "no gun laws" is not the same thing as saying the BOR applies to the states.


300 posted on 11/10/2004 12:35:51 PM PST by RayStacy
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