None of which, as I pointed out, has changed the purchase price of the car. I'll bet I could go down the road proving the purchase price of a VW Beetle then equals a Kia or Hyundai now or a Cadillac DeVille then equals a Lexus Infiniti now. What HAS changed is the ability of the consumer to pay for it.
Are you making a "real income is falling" argument? Is that it?