[tacticalogic]

But, the courts have ruled that IF Congress is regulating interstate commerce, and IF intrastate commerce has a substantial effect on their regulatory efforts, THEN AND ONLY THEN may Congress regulate the intrastate trade.

Apparently the courts you're referencing edited out the first part of Jefferson's comments, just as you have done, in order to make that determination, if they considered them at all. It's called "selective omission", and falls squarely into the realm of intellectual dishonesty.

[robertpaulsen]

"edited out the first part of Jefferson's comments"

What first part -- about banks? What are you talking about?

Congress is not allowed to regulate strictly intrastate commerce. You cannot give me one example where they are. It is a non-issue. Let it go.