I plant a seed in my backyard.
Cultivate and harvest the plant.
Consume the plant.
And the Federal govt. is empowered to regulate this because of the Interstate Commerce Clause?
Some people call it that, but the actual power is "among the several states".
First, Congess must decide to regulate some interstate commerce. Just because wheat, let's say, is interstate commerce, and Congress has the power to regulate interstate commerce, doesn't mean that Congress must regulate wheat.
But let's say that there's a temporary glut of wheat on the world market. American farmers are going bankrupt because it costs more to grow the wheat that what they'll get for it.
Congress decides to regulate the wheat and limit the production in order to raise the price. They guarantee the farmers a set price if they only grow so many acres. The farmers agree. All but one.
This guy decides he'll grow his allotment at the guaranteed price, but then grows a little more for his own use (for bread, animal feed, etc.).
Should he be allowed to do that? Certainly if he can, then you must allow the other farmers to do the same.
Now, if these farmers are growing their own "personal use" amount of wheat, doesn't that have a cumulative affect on demand (ie., they're not buying it in the open market)?
Wouldn't you say that has an effect, perhaps a substantial effect, on interstate trade?