Odd.
After any 5+ magnitude quake, is rare NOT to have aftershocks!
So what is this scientist referring to by claiming a "coincidence" of two earthquakes in the same area?
Perhaps when there are two distinct fault lines involved they give each a unique "quake" status. Then "fore" and "after" shocks would apply only to precedent or subsequent quakes occurring on the same fault line.
Just a guess however.