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To: bd476

Odd.

After any 5+ magnitude quake, is rare NOT to have aftershocks!

So what is this scientist referring to by claiming a "coincidence" of two earthquakes in the same area?


35 posted on 07/19/2004 4:52:37 PM PDT by Robert A Cook PE (I can only donate monthly ... But Kerry's ABBCNNBCBS press corpse lies every day.)
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To: Robert A. Cook, PE
It seemed strange that they called the two quakes a coincidence.

Perhaps when there are two distinct fault lines involved they give each a unique "quake" status. Then "fore" and "after" shocks would apply only to precedent or subsequent quakes occurring on the same fault line.

Just a guess however.

51 posted on 07/19/2004 5:51:27 PM PDT by bd476
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