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To: D-fendr
‘Nothing’ can only equal ‘nothing’. What physical law(s) applies to nothingness - particularly as a first cause for the physical?

Honestly, I’m more curious as to the point you are making…

58 posted on 07/20/2004 4:03:02 PM PDT by Heartlander (How odd it is that anyone should not see that all observation must be for or against some view)
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To: Heartlander
What physical law(s) applies to nothingness…?

The same as apply to somethingness, only there's nothing there to reveal them.

Think of it this way: A vacuum jar. Do the physical laws stop at the boundary of the jar?

No, they still exist in the jar; there is just nothing there with which you can empircally determine that the laws exist. Introduce anything into the jar - that you can detect with your senses or instruments - and oilá, physical laws are evidenced.

Honestly, I’m more curious as to the point you are making…

Please let me know if I'm still not successful in communicating.

Thanks for your reply...

68 posted on 07/20/2004 8:44:58 PM PDT by D-fendr
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