True, but have you looked at the clinical criteria of mental disorders? It's not that murky, illogical, or subjective. Yours is a phantom conundrum.
I don't think you understand the difference between psychology and science.
But let's play anyway: here are the "diagnostic criteria" for pedophilia:
"This Paraphilia is characterized by sexual activity with a child, usually age 13 or younger, or in the case of an adolescent, a child 5 years younger than the pedophile.
Diagnostic criteria for 302.2 Pedophilia
(cautionary statement)
A. Over a period of at least 6 months, recurrent, intense sexually arousing fantasies, sexual urges, or behaviors involving sexual activity with a prepubescent child or children (generally age 13 years or younger).
B. The person has acted on these urges, or the sexual urges or fantasies cause marked distress or interpersonal difficulty.
C. The person is at least age 16 years and at least 5 years older than the child or children in Criterion A.
Note: Do not include an individual in late adolescence involved in an ongoing sexual relationship with a 12- or 13-year-old.
Specify if:
Sexually Attracted to Males
Sexually Attracted to Females
Sexually Attracted to Both
Specify if:
Limited to Incest
Specify type:
Exclusive Type (attracted only to children)
Nonexclusive Type
Reprinted with permission from the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fourth Edition, Text Revision. Copyright 2000 American Psychiatric Association"
You'll notice there is simply an assumption here, not demonstrated by the criteria but assumed prior to the criteria, that the activity is abnormal. THERE IS NOTHING IN THE CLINICAL CRITERIA THAT "PROVES" THE ABNORMALITY. IT IS SIMPLY DEFINED AS ABNORMAL BY VIRTUE OF BEING ON THE LIST IN THE FIRST PLACE.
This assumption is a cultural value. It is not a scientific fact.