"--- only Congress can violate the first amendment."
-22-
" --- The 14th Amendment was not needed to apply ANY of the bill of rights to the states."
-hugh-
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Justice Thomas just commented in 'Newdow' that only the establishment clause of the 1st applied to Congress, and that all the rest of the rights mentioned are individual freedoms, not to be infringed upon by any level of government, fed/state/local..
Makes sense to me
OK, so Justice Thomas reads:
"Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof; or abridging the freedom of speech, or of the press; or the right of the people peaceably to assemble, and to petition the Government for a redress of grievances. ",
and says it also restricts State Governments? I read it as one sentence, beginning with "Congress shall make no law..."
How do you figure that applies to the states?
Assuming he said what you said he said, he's wrong.
d'You worry that nothing protects the people from their state government?
Did you know the VA Constitution is far more protective of religious freedom than the first amendment is? Is it amazing to you that a State's const. can protect freedom better than the Federal? (and a SOUTHERN State's to boot!)