The more I read about 14th amendment the more I come to believe that the 14th wasn't to apply any amendment to the states.
That is exactly what everyone has been trying to tell you paulsen. ALL of our basic inalienable rights already applied to ALL levels of government. -- The 14th was needed to stop State infringements of our individual rights to life, liberty, or property.
As everyone on this board agrees, except tpaine, the BOR as written was only to apply to the federal government.
Nearly everyone on this board agrees that our RKBA's is inalienable, paulsen, You dont. You boast:
"I like it that way."
193 paulsen
Yep, paulsen you like the way our corrupted system works, no doubt because you make your living off some aspect of the corruption.
And everyone on this board can see that ~very~ clearly.
The 14th Amendment was intended to centralize our government, by giving the Federal courts too much power over the State legislatures. It is an illegitimate amendment, the font of do-good busybody, Harrison Bergeron liberalism (like busing), proposed and voted out by an unconstitutional Congress. Less than 3/4ths of the states ratified it. The southern states weren't even in the Union, and were under reconstructive dictatorships when they "ratified" it. It is a squalid amendment - of a rump congress, by a rump congress, for a rump congress.
The 14th Amendment was not needed to apply ANY of the bill of rights to the states. Article VI, Section 2 already covers that need: "This Constitution...shall be the supreme Law of the Land...Judges in every State shall be bound thereby, any Thing in the Constitution or Laws of any State to the Contrary notwithstanding".
No State could deny a right to bear arms, given the above clause.
http://www.freerepublic.com/forum/a38ae1fc86628.htm