So the author says that Hillary is ineligible to be president for exactly the same reason that Bill is ineligible. However, the reason Bill is ineligible is because he's already served two full terms, whereas Hillary is ineligible because she's female.
Last I checked, that doesn't conform to the Webster's definition of "precisely" - above and beyond the complete erroneous claim that Hillary is ineligible because she's female.
No, vice president. Read the rest of my post.