[perform_to_strangers]

Thomas Aquinas had no great difficulty with the definition. "...and furthermore delivers him to the secular tribunal to be exterminated thereby from the world by death."

If Thomas Aquinas had understood "to exterminate" to mean "to kill," why would he bother to add "from the world by death?"

[OLD REGGIE]

If Thomas Aquinas had understood "to exterminate" to mean "to kill," why would he bother to add "from the world by death?"

Because that was the method he preferred. Why do you suppose?