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To: robertpaulsen
Aside from the arguments made, the second explanation just seems to make more sense, that's all.

You aren't a lawyer, by chance, are you? Either we have Rights, or we don't. If we do, then the States do not now, nor have they ever had the power to violate them.

If the Rights contained in the BoR were considered to be basic to all Americans, how could any individual State have the power to violate them? They cannot and remain a just government. Arguments at to when the USSC gained the ability to strike down these unconstitutional State laws become legalistic sophistry, since the States never had the moral authority from the People to make them in the first place.

431 posted on 06/21/2004 12:03:09 PM PDT by LexBaird (Tyrannosaurus Lex, unapologetic carnivore)
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To: LexBaird
Should be "...as to when..."
433 posted on 06/21/2004 12:09:24 PM PDT by LexBaird (Tyrannosaurus Lex, unapologetic carnivore)
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