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To: ancient_geezer
An excise on the use or consumption of taxable properties and service as defined in HR25, collected at from the purchaser at point of retail purchase by vendor or on entry into the country by customs if purchased outside the United States.
No, the states and/or the Sales Tax Bureau is collecting the "tax on the use or consumption in the United States of taxable property or services" "collected from the purchaser at point of retail purchase by vendor." So that still leaves the question: What is the Excise Tax Bureau collecting?

And you posted the same definitions of excise but seem to be ignoring the word "commodity" in them. As I posted before, a commodity is "a class of economic goods." So your two definitions are:
EXCISES. This word is used to signify an inland imposition, paid sometimes upon the consumption of the [class of economic goods], and frequently upon the retail sale.
and:
a tax levied on the manufacture, sale, or consumption of a [class of economic goods]




And as I mentioned before, your quote from the Constitution is irrelevant. If the government can collect an excise is not the question. The question is "is the sales tax an excise tax." It is not.



It is always nice to see the opponents of legislation or a law reduced to arguing narrow definitions because they have no substantive points to support their view.
Please, you are the one who brought up "excise taxes" in post #264. I guess because you had "no substantive points to support your view."
289 posted on 06/23/2004 6:53:36 PM PDT by Your Nightmare
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To: Your Nightmare

The question is "is the sales tax an excise tax." It is not.

As you wish, if you want to call a sales tax something other than one or more excises collected together into a general tax you may.

However be aware that the legislative language that many states use in their bills and laws, often explicitly define the term "sales tax" as meaning a specific excise tax or group of excise taxes.

Such usage can be found in the statutes & legislative bills of both Hawaii and and Wyoming as I recall. I see no reason to believe they are isolated in such usage.

And most states have no problem with their businesses applying their sales taxes on the basis of tax included pricing as long as those businesses let make sure the customer is aware that their pricing includes the sales taxes levied on the taxable property and services their sales tax applies to.

I see nothing to be gained arguing the matter further, since the NRST demands representation of the price including price of purchases as well as the tax free price and tax amount applied. Which make the computation of tax by the customer straight forward using the NRST measures in NRST conforming states.

 

Please, you are the one who brought up "excise taxes" in post #264 . I guess because you had "no substantive points to support your view."

I use the term "excise levied", but no need to quibble in reference to the classification of the NRST.

The post makes clear the NRST provides for both tax included pricing, along with compatible tax inclusive rate lending it self to the context of the current regulation concerning current excise taxes to which the national government is subject.

If you want to figure the NRST with its tax inclusive measures is not explicitly compatible with that regulation that's your problem.

290 posted on 06/23/2004 10:24:13 PM PDT by ancient_geezer (Equality, the French disease: Everyone is equal beneath the guillotine.)
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