By some, perhaps, but not by all. And certainly not in the unilateral manner practiced by the southern states.
My understanding is that the South paid 2/3 of the tariff receipts prior to 1860...
You have some figures to back that up?
My understanding is that the South paid 2/3 of the tariff receipts prior to 1860...
You have some figures to back that up?
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It's impossible, since the North had something on the order of 10-20x the industrial capacity, and therefore HAD to have imported more than the then-backward South.