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To: spunkets
Means the same as, " the intent there was to remove State power to favor their own players over those of another State."

How is the state involved if I sell a hotdog at a carnival to someone? When the hotdog was sold from a meat plant out of state to the market where I bought it then there was interstate commerce. The sale at the carnival was not. And the state had no means to favor one other state over another in the second transaction.

Also, how is the 15 year old AR in my closet involved in interstate commerce once is was sold to the end user? Sorry, I view the use of the commerce clause as a thin excuse for a naked power grab by the fedgov. You seem to favor it, but it is a prime reason that the fedgov wields more power than they were ever intended to have.

58 posted on 03/31/2004 11:47:17 AM PST by MileHi
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To: MileHi
The scope of the food market, hot dogs in particular, is interstate.

" Also, how is the 15 year old AR in my closet involved in interstate commerce once is was sold to the end user?"

Be specific on what law, or rule you are refering to.

"power grab"

The commerce clause exists to give the feds jurisdiction over interstate markets.

62 posted on 03/31/2004 12:07:39 PM PST by spunkets
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