No. It does not. You wish to twist it to say that because you have no foundation anywhere in scripture that blatently says what you are trying to establish. This is Why Paul made his pronouncement in Galations and why Isaiah made his. Isaiah 8:20 To the law and to the testimony: if they speak not according to this word, [it is] because [there is] no light in them. Paul knew what he was speaking about because he'd been a Pharisee. He knew the law and the pronouncements of Scripture all too well. You are teaching other than was taught. And as it happens, you're teaching against what Israel taught because you are ignorant of what went before.
Do you subscribe to 'sola scriptura'?