[Kerberos]

"However, Christianity is not Judaism, and Jesus did not approve of polygamy"

Now wait, see here is the part where I get confused. It is my understanding that the Christian belief is that the bible is the inerrant word of God. But now you tell me that Jesus changed that, so if that is true then the Bible cannot be the inerrant word of God because if Jesus had to change it that would mean it wasn’t right in the first place..

So since the Old Testament is Judaism and the New Testament is Christianity does that mean that the 10 commandments no longer apply. And then didn't Jesus say that he came not to replace the law but to fulfill it. But yet you are telling me that he changed it.

Can you see the cause of my confusion?

"Therefore....The Post-Christian West"

Which, as per your explanation on this one topic, would be equivalent to the Pre-Christian East.

[xzins]

Your premise, it seems to me is this: If you change something in favor of a new thing, then the original thing must have been flawed. Or, stated differently...if thing A is changed in favor of thing B, then thing A must have been flawed. Two issues that come immediately to my mind are: 1. What if your thing A has been changed by someone else into thing A₁, so that it isn't really the thing A that you proposed? 2. Is an update, based on a new stage of a staged process, indicative of flaws in thing A, or is it based on advances getting us to thing B?