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To: gobucks
The Second Vatican Council acknowledged the sin of the Church for almost 2000 years in blaming the Jews for the death of Jesus. Neither the Jews of that generation or of those to come, they decreed, bear any guilt for deicide.

Why is that virtually every rabbi who has written about "The Passion of the Christ" has misquoted the teachings of Vatican II on Jewish responsibility (or lack of it) for the death of Christ?

Nostra Aetate didn’t say no Jews bore any responsibility for the death of Christ. It simply said that it’s an error to blame all Jews of the era "indiscriminately" or to blame today’s Jews for Christ’s death. But then after absolving those who clearly had nothing to do with the matter, Nostra Aetate also went on to say that the "Jewish authorities" of the time, as well as "those who followed their lead" had in fact "pressed for the death of Christ."

I don't how many times I've heard this misstated in the last couple of weeks. But the fact that it happens so often makes me think there's more going on here than simple honest error.

46 posted on 03/04/2004 8:55:25 PM PST by DentsRun
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To: DentsRun
Thanks for that post .... I'd not actually checked on this which is ubiquitously referred to ... dishonestly it now appears.
61 posted on 03/05/2004 2:48:21 AM PST by gobucks (http://oncampus.richmond.edu/academics/classics/students/Ribeiro/laocoon)
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