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Correct. The practice of sacrificing an innocent lamb for the forgiveness of their sins was practiced. During Passover, the smearing of the lambs blood on the homes of the Jewish people saved their first born. It was instituted according the the Judaic law, the atonement of sin fell on to the slaughtering of the innocent by the High Priest in the Temple.

I know a lot of Jews have problems with the Jewish leaders being compliant in the capturing and condemning of Christ to death. However, they do not understand the context of why it had to be this way.

Christs death had to follow and fulfill Jewish law and prophecy. It had to be the Jews who delivered him to the Romans for sentencing. Christ came to fulfill the second covenant promised to His chosen people, the people of Israel. He was the last and ultimate sacrifice, rendered by the Highest Priest of them all - God, by which all of mankind could be forgiven.

Psalms 22 penned by King David, hundreds of years prior, taught by Christ on the cross, seals the acts of the who, what, where, when, and why of things.

What would come out of the mouth of the high priest was prerecorded, so it was predestined.

Pauls tells recounting Psalms 22 in Hebrews 2:12 and the cites IISam. 22:3 in verse 12.

Paul then continues in Hebrews 2:14

Forasmuch then as the children are partakers of flesh and

blood, He also Himself likewise took part of the same;

that through death HE might destroy him that had the power

of death, that is the devil;

Interesting that Christ became salvation for those who would believe and also the one who would be able to give the death sentence, to the devil.

You're right. I never saw it that way before, but only Jewish Priests (Levis) could offer sacrifices for the atonement of sins. So to perfect the sacrifical lamb tradition as metaphorical prophecy, it would have to be the Jewish Priests who offer up Jesus for the final and perfect sacrifice.

Thanks for the insight.