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To: E=MC<sup>2</sup>; cinnathepoet
"Why does a city official have power over a county official?"

Because the city of San Francisco and the county of San Francisco are the same entity. On the official stationary you will find the words, "City and County of San Francisco."

50 posted on 02/20/2004 10:33:17 PM PST by Bonaparte
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To: Bonaparte
Makes sense.
52 posted on 02/20/2004 10:34:43 PM PST by cinnathepoet (Directly, I am going to Caesar's funeral)
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To: Bonaparte
The judge in Alabama was ousted for not enforcing a state ruling concerning the removal of the Ten Commandments. Therefore....should it not also follow that....
137 posted on 02/21/2004 9:22:26 AM PST by Ciexyz
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To: Bonaparte
My question is this? If the voters in Kalif. have passed a law regarding the banning of same sex marriages, then what can the Gov. do to enforce this? If the judges say the law is unconstitutional, then the voters have no say in how our govenrmnet is to be run. If the voters have no say, then are we not returning to Government without representation. If this is true, then why pay taxes?
173 posted on 02/22/2004 9:34:03 AM PST by DownInFlames
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