To: Aquinasfan
The Bible records someone in the Jewish crowd as having said, "let his blood be upon us..." However, this doesn't mean that Jews bear collective guilt for Jesus' crucifixion. It just means that a man in the crowd said this. THANK YOU!!
I have tried to explain this to so many people. I'm glad someone gets it :)
To: Dr. Frank fan
And we don't even know that the man who said that WAS Jewish. This may have been a "rent-a-crowd" made up mainly of the security guards and low-level employees of the Temple, who are said to have been mostly Idumean and Arabs and the like, shabbos-goyim if you please, who could do the dirty work and handle blood and corpses and what all.
Jesus and all the Good Guys in the NT were Jewish, so if a few of the BAD Guys are Jewish, why, that is just par for the course. To be expected. Why is this such a big deal?
Very much of the problem comes from the translation of "Judaeans" in the Book of John as "JEWS," a blatant mistranslation in our English bibles. This word means "Southerners, Jerusalemites" and thus usually Sadducees or Pharisees; ---
as opposed to the Northerners or "Galileans," which is the appropriate contrasting or opposite term. [The girl said to Peter, "I perceive you are one of them; you are a Galilean."]
The people [including John himself, a Kohan] who were tossing the "insult" Judaeans at Jesus' critics, those of the southern sects.......were just as much Jews by race, descendants of Abraham, as well as by Religion, though of the Northern sect[s] (Nazarenes, Essenes)...as were the targets of the insult.
We need a simple redo of the book of John translation in English, the original has no such anti-Semitic implication...
26 posted on
02/13/2004 12:39:05 PM PST by
Chris Talk
(What Earth now is, Mars once was. What Mars now is, Earth will become.)
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