To: justshutupandtakeit
The initial meaning of the 2d was that the Federal government could not infringe upon that right. States could and did infringe many, if not all, the rights mentioned in the BoR. Now they are applicable to the states.No, wrong again. You are thinking of the 1st Amendment. The 2nd Amendment does not mention Congress. The 2nd enumerates an inalienable right, that can not be infringed.
To: Double Tap
Sorry but the Court ruled early on that the BoR didn't apply to the states. My reading of them is like yours but the USSC did not agree in 1833 (I think.) Certainly blacks were not allowed to arm without their owners consent in the South.
368 posted on
02/10/2004 1:30:30 PM PST by
justshutupandtakeit
(America's Enemies foreign and domestic agree: Bush must be destroyed.)
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