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I think what you wrote is 100% true. That does not mean a spouse may use a condom because the other spouse is infected. Now, If the man insisted on using a condom and the woman agreed that is different than the woman disagreeing, but trying to persuade him over time. Make sense?

Dear johnb2004,

Yes, what you say makes sense, but I don't think that it takes the logic far enough.

A woman may say to her HIV + husband, "Husband, you are infected. You have been unfaithful, and have not done right by me. We ought to entirely abstain from relations."

And he might respond, "I will use a condom, dear wife, don't deny me."

And she continues, "No, that is a sin. We must abstain."

And he responds, "I will not abstain. I will have relations with you whether you cooperate or not. You are my wife, and I will have relations with you. But if you wish, I will use a condom."

She continue on, "I do not wish. I wish that you would not have any relations with me at all. But if you will not relent, then I have a choice between unwelcome sex with no protection against death, or unwelcome sex with a little protection against death. The sin is on your head, husband, whether you use the condom or not, but I prefer some small protection to none. I desire sex with you under neither circumstances, but will be less uncooperative if you use the condom."

I'm not sure that isn't morally licit. The wife isn't consenting to contraception. She is asking her husband, who is little more than a rapist, to reduce the likelihood of harm that he does to her.

That there are "marriages" like this is both undeniable and extremely regrettable.

sitetest

That does not mean a spouse may use a condom because the other spouse is infected. Now, If the man insisted on using a condom and the woman agreed that is different than the woman disagreeing, but trying to persuade him over time. Make sense?

No, it doesn't.

That does not mean a spouse may use a condom because the other spouse is infected. Now, If the man insisted on using a condom and the woman agreed that is different than the woman disagreeing, but trying to persuade him over time. Make sense?

No, it doesn't.

That does not mean a spouse may use a condom because the other spouse is infected. Now, If the man insisted on using a condom and the woman agreed that is different than the woman disagreeing, but trying to persuade him over time. Make sense?

No, it doesn't.