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I was hoping you'd get as far in the article as this:

"V. WHAT TEACHING IS INFALLIBLE?

...

As regards matter, only doctrines of faith and morals, and facts so intimately connected with these as to require infallible determination, fall under tbe scope of infallible ecclesiastical teaching...It need only be added here that not everything in a conciliar or papal pronouncement, in which some doctrine is defined, is to be treated as definitive and infallible. For example, in the lengthy Bull of Pius IX defining the Immaculate Conception the strictly definitive and infallible portion is comprised in a sentence or two..."

You're using the word "doctrine," but there are problems with definitions. There are many areas I suspect you might include under the heading of doctrine where the Church makes no claim to inerrancy or infallibility.

The Church's assertion of infallibility is nowhere nearly as broad as you would seem to think it is. I think there are many more doctrines about the Church makes no such claim than there are about which it does.

"Next question: Are other churches (besides the RC church) only true in their doctrine when they agree with RC doctrine?"

If the doctrine in question falls in that narrowly circumscribed area described in the article, yes. If it's something like the use of musical instruments in Church, which does not fall in that area, no.

That said, I think virtually any Christian church is in agreement with all of the Apostle's creed except the parts about the Catholic Church and the Communion of Saints.

Many of the quibbles I see, with the exception of predestination, are either inconsequential or based on misconceptions as to what Catholics actually believe.