Then your only reply is completely irrelevant. The 1st Amendment says nothing about an absolute right to Freedom of Speech.
Since you apparently have managed to avoid reading the amendment in question, allow me to quote the relevant language:
Congress shall make no law abridging the freedom of speech, or of the press
If you claim the 30/60-day ban on political ads is constitutional, you have three choices:
1) prove that Congress did not pass the ban ( Congress shall make no law); or
2) prove that the ban does not reduce or lessen in duration (abridge) the freedom of speech, or of the press; or
3) prove that public advertisements concerning elections do not qualify as freedom of speech, or of the press.
Whats your answer, funny boy?
(You're a 'seminar caller,' right? No one but a liberal could possibly be as obtuse as you appear to be... ;>)