[Tares]

...but the event itself (the Ark, the flood) should have material evidence, if they did occur.

Perhaps. But since natural laws were not in operation when the events occured, why do you assume the material evidence has to conform to natural law, and that evidence of the event is thus amenable to investigation by scientific means? Uniformity of physical laws does not apply, by definition.

[Modernman]

But since natural laws were not in operation when the events occured

This is another premise we don't share. It's also patently unproveable. Where does this idea come from?