He has been found not guilty of all criminal charges. There are no other pending criminal charges against him. By what justification can the state continue to claim ownership of his property?
To use your example, when people held in jail are found not guilty of all charges, they are immediately released.
This is a State of Texas asset forfeiture. I have no idea how their asset forfeiture laws work and how they're implemented. That's all up to the citizens of Texas.
You are in favor of states rights, aren't you? That the people of each state determine how they want to live?
It just seems to me that you're kinda, you know, butting in on their affairs? Were you also in favor of butting in on Texas law to overturn their sodomy laws?
Hmmmm. I always figured you for a real 10th amendment person. But you think the federal government (we) should step in and overturn their asset forfeiture laws?