He was found not guilty of possession. He was not found not guilty of "all crimes". Sheesh.
I don't know (from the article) what else he was charged with. I don't know if he was found guilty of other Texas crimes. I don't know if Texas law allows the "property" to be charged. I am not familiar with Texas asset forfeiture laws.
He was cleared of all criminal charges against him. There are no outstanding charges (see the last sentence of the article). The government continues to lay claim to his property. Is this consistent with the fourth amendment, which is incorporated by all states including Texas?