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To: my_pointy_head_is_sharp
The people who want to find Biblical support for the marriage of Jesus have an answer for that and it involves the translation of the Bible. Apparently they find the word 'invited' is an inexact translation. They think the word 'called' is more exact than 'invited'.


Traditional Jewish records explain that a "call" is usually made to the Bridegroom and his groomsmen when the wedding preparations are complete. Jewish traditions explain this call was made in the evening. They note, according to other translations of John, that Jesus was "called" to the wedding.

It seems to me to be slim evidence of Jesus' marriage but I'm hardly a Biblical scholar.



98 posted on 11/01/2003 11:37:31 AM PST by StupidQuestions
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To: StupidQuestions
You're right. I did see the word "called" used in other versions, but I didn't know the Jewish meaning of the word.

John 2
1 And on the third day there was a marriage in Cana of Galilee, and the mother of Jesus was there;
2 and both Jesus and His disciples were called to the marriage.
4 Jesus said unto her, "Woman, what have I to do with thee? Mine hour is not yet come."
5 His mother said unto the servants, "Whatsoever He saith unto you, do it."
6 And there were set there six waterpots of stone, according to the manner of the purifying of the Jews, holding twenty to thirty gallons apiece.
7 Jesus said unto them, "Fill the waterpots with water." And they filled them up to the brim.
8 And He said unto them, "Draw some out now, and bear it unto the governor of the feast." And they took it.

Isn't the whole passage rather bizarre and cryptic anyway? Mary tells Jesus that there is no wine, as if she knows that he is planning to do something about it. He replies by saying his hour has not yet come. In preparation, Mary tells the servants to do whatever Jesus tells them to do. Jesus then tells the servants to fill the waterpots.

The whole sequence is just so odd, as if something has been deleted or omitted. The story just doesn't flow.

Questions:

1. Why is Mary so concerned that there's no wine?

2. Did they both plan that Jesus would do something at the wedding? Or was Mary aware of Jesus' plan? - Mary says to the servants: "Whatsoever He saith unto you, do it."

3. Why is Jesus deliberately rude to her? - "Woman, what have I to do with thee?" - Might not a better translation read (if applicable): "Mother, what does that have to do with me?" [That would be closer to the way a son would speak to his mother.] - "Mother, what does that have to do with me?" (and then whispering) "It's not time yet." [Sorry to rewrite the Bible, but these thoughts are just occurring to me because of the oddness of the passage.]

4. How does this first of Jesus' miracles "manifest forth his glory"? Is it because "His disciples [then] believed in Him"?

5. Why does he initially disavow that he is planning to do anything, yet in the very next instant, after his mother has spoken to the servants, he then gives orders to the servants?

I'd love to see the stuff that didn't make it into the official version of the Bible - the stuff that's hidden away in the Vatican - some of these stories might then make more sense.

124 posted on 11/01/2003 2:32:54 PM PST by my_pointy_head_is_sharp
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