I'm sorry if my post gave you the wrong impression.
I'm not carping about the use of Latin. I'm just raising the question of why Greek is being avoided in this movie.
The Bible tells us that the INRI inscription was written in Latin, Aramaic and Greek (St John 19:20) Therefore, it is reasonable to assume that Greek was spoken by many members of the crowd, otherwise, why would the occupying power post a sign in Greek or Aramaic instead of solely the official Roman Empire language?
Furthermore, many new Testament writers had humble beginnings such as fishermen; nevertheless, they wrote in Greek their recollections of Jesus deeds and words. Their readership was not the proud and educated, but other humble people like them.
It seems rather obvious that Greek was the lingua franca of the time.
Finally, the Bible also states that the Greeks conquered Palestine after Alexander the Great defeated the Medo-Persians, and that the Greeks imposed their culture upon the Jews in Israel for several centuries. The Bible mentions that the strong Hellenization created a strong resentment among Jews, cultiminating in the Maccabee rebelion after the temple desecration. (I Maccabees 1).
By Jesus time, the Romans were a relatively new occupying power over Palestine, and the Roman language had not taken deep roots in the region. Therefore, Greek was commonly spoken by Jews of all backgrounds, even fisherment and peasants.
My question is: Why is it that no Greek at all is spoken in this film?
If there is an historical reason for it, I'm happy to know.
I was hoping that someone who has read about this film background knew the answer; I'm might be overlooking some historical fact.