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To: MamaTexan
Fair enough. I'd really like to apologize for being the source of it. I'm seriously not trying to be.

And now I'm convinced you're discussing in good faith and not just jerking me around. I'll try and keep a lid on any frustration. I have an intimidating deadline and have been working hard all week, so I'm more on edge than usual.

What do you mean by 'internal politics'. As in the federal governments relations to the states, a states internal relation with itself?

I was thinking of using the word "intranational," but I wasn't sure that'd be clear. I just mean the political questions that are entirely a nation's own business, that don't have to do with its relations with other nations. Like who's a citizen and who gets to be president.

What you're asking me for is certain knowledge, and, to me, if I can't stand up in front of a judge and swear to it, it's not certain knowledge. I wasn't THERE so I can't answer it either way!
Oh, Dude, I am so, SO sorry!

No, that's cool. I have a lot of "as I understand it" and "as far as I know" in my posts for the same reason. I'll read your posts in that framework, then.

I really though you pulled it from Ark and it came from Blackstone.

I'm sorry, but by all rights the mistake could have been discovered at the outset had you put a source up for what you were contending to be true.
You didn't even know the year, all you gave was a name.

I can see where the confusion came from, though actually I did give a source, sorta. This started with my saying that "natural-born subject" didn't require inheritance from parents (392), and you asked what English law that was based on (396), and I said there was a lot of discussion of it in Wong Kim Ark (405) and quoted one reference, prefaced with "The English statute of 11 & 12 Will. III (1700). c. 6." Whew.

you're asking me to prove a negative after I just proved a positive...while you still haven't proven anything yet.

And I think you're asking me to prove a negative: you posted a quote and said it referred to the book "Law of Nations" rather than just the generic term "law of nations," and asked me to prove it didn't.

Please do show me anything I missed. I try to catch everything, but if you made a point and I ignored it, please do point it out to me.

In (480), in response to what I thought was a request to prove that Wilson wasn't talking about the book, I posted three other sentences from the same speech (or whatever it was) that I thought clearly could not possibly refer to the book. I suppose it's possible that he went back and forth between meaning the book and meaning the generic term without ever indicating which one, but that seems unlikely.

I've sincerely enjoyed it and am most certainly not trying to bring frustration into your life. Life does enough of that on its own.

I knew we'd agree on something sooner or later.

501 posted on 03/21/2013 10:35:36 PM PDT by Ha Ha Thats Very Logical
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To: Ha Ha Thats Very Logical
I have an intimidating deadline and have been working hard all week, so I'm more on edge than usual.

Poor thing! It's perfectly understandable. Don't rush anything on my account. These words will pretty much stay where we put them unless the 'lectricity goes out.

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I just mean the political questions that are entirely a nation's own business, that don't have to do with its relations with other nations.

But the internal operation of the country IS the relations between the States. At least it was supposed to be.

We may see what Vattel was talking about was what our concept of 'nations' is....but in a functional sense, that's exactly what the States are. They are independent political bodies that joined together, and agreed on a few powers to delegate to an entity they created to protect their collective interests.

Tucker ties the law of nations TO the 10th Amendment and the 10th is strictly an internal operation. Ergo, the words of Tucker illustrate that Vattels law of nations does have an internal Constitutional operation, because the 10th Amendment has no affect on the federal government's relations with other nations.

That's my opinion of it anyway.

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That's the beauty of the Law of Nature and Nations. Whether you are an individual person, a State OR a nation, the Freedom of Association rule still applies.

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"The English statute of 11 & 12 Will. III (1700). c. 6." Whew.

LOL! 'Whew!' is right!

Okay, do you see any point in going back to all this? I mean, Blackstone was the standard in English law, and Tucker's annotated version was the standard in early America.

You can go to any lawyer's office in the country and find Tucker's work in the leather-bound tomes behind their desk, so can we agree these can be used as a standard in the discussion?

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And I think you're asking me to prove a negative:

You're right I did. I realized it later and had a "Doh!" moment.

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you posted a quote and said it referred to the book "Law of Nations" rather than just the generic term "law of nations," and asked me to prove it didn't.

All I can do is look at the evidence - 1] the Founders had Vattel in hand and were using it while they were writing the Constitution. 2]Kent said he was the 'most quoted' jurist during that time. 3] Tucker said the 10th was an 'express recognition' of Vattel.

So there are 3 pieces of evidence illustrating Vattel's work was both well known and in circulation at that time. And you basically, despite all 3 pieces of evidence, asked me to prove it was Vattel and not a generic law of nations Wilson was talking about.

Does that mean you think I should have to directly trace back to Vattel every usage of the generic term 'law of nations' we come across?

I'm not trying to be contrary, and I'm not even saying Vattel was used exclusively, but the fact is that we have to establish some kind of baseline somewhere if we want to sift fact from fiction. IMHO, with the evidence I know of, Vattel's the best chance we have.

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In (480), in response to what I thought was a request to prove that Wilson wasn't talking about the book, I posted three other sentences from the same speech (or whatever it was) that I thought clearly could not possibly refer to the book.

Okay, it's in 492 in response to 480, and it wasn't an intentional ignore, it was an I-really-didn't-see-it 'ignore'. It must've popped up after I was posting and I never scrolled back far enough to realize it was there.

Yes, you are correct in that there are several proper names in there that might indicate Vattel wasn't used exclusively for that particular lecture, and 2 of those, Grotius and Pufendorff, were also authors of the works called the Law of Nations.

But with the 3 pieces of evidence already present, it conversely doesn't prove the generic term law of nations never referenced Vattel at all.

[To clarify - the above isn't a hedge, it's just what I do. I have this habit of taking a piece of evidence, looking at it one way, and then looking at it again in reverse, so you'll see the word 'conversely' a lot]

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I knew we'd agree on something sooner or later.

I'm very glad that we did.

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This is pure assumption on my part, but I think you may at a very frustrating point in you quest, anyway. This, of course, doesn't help matters any, I just wanted to let you know something that it took me a long time to discover. Maybe it will help.

If you want to take an honest, unjaundiced view of the past, you have to forget everything you think you already know, and start, like the Founders did......from the beginning. You will never get a clear view of that time trying to look through the warped lens of the present.

Sincerest and most humble apologies again for any frustration, and if you make a point and think I ignore it, please do bring it to my attention.

Meanwhile, don't work too hard, stay safe, and

Big Hug

503 posted on 03/22/2013 7:01:00 AM PDT by MamaTexan (To follow Original Constitutional Intent, one MUST acknowledge the Right of Secession)
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