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Posted on 08/10/2025 7:29:49 AM PDT by silent majority rising
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It is perjorative because it is in the context of Britain and France’s agreement for the division of the Middle East was based on their colonies that each previously controlled. They created the nation/state divisions by the Sykes/Picot Agreement: The key terms of the agreement were to:
Create Spheres of Influence: The Arab lands of the Ottoman Empire were to be divided into French and British “spheres of influence” and “control.”
French Control: France was to be given direct control over southeastern Turkey, the Kurdistan region, Syria, and Lebanon.
British Control: Britain was to get direct control over what is now southern Iraq, Jordan, and a small area that included the ports of Acre and Haifa in modern-day Israel to give them access to the Mediterranean Sea.
International Administration: An international administration would be established for the area of Palestine.
Arab State/Confederation: Both Britain and France agreed to recognize and protect an independent Arab state or a confederation of Arab states in a large inland area of the Middle East. However, in this region, France would have priority of enterprise and loans in the north, and Britain would have the same priority in the south.
It’s important to note that the agreement largely disregarded the aspirations of Arab nationalists who were hoping for an independent Arab state. The borders drawn in the Sykes-Picot Agreement laid the foundation for the modern borders of Iraq, Israel, Jordan, Lebanon, and Syria. The subsequent Russian Revolution in 1917 and the Ottoman Empire’s eventual defeat led to some modifications of the agreement’s terms, but its general framework had a lasting impact on the region.
General Allenby concluded the Conquest of the Turkish-Ottoman Empire in 1917, when General Allenby entered Jerusalem on a horse. His name, Allenby, was translated into Arabic as Alla Bey, or the Son of God, so they thought the Christian Messiah had entered at that time and they laid down their weapons. The British Mandate that was established in 1920 was created along the lines of the Sykes-Picot Agreement, in which France administered Lebanon and Britain administered Israel, part of Syria, and Saudi Arabia. Before then, there were no borders of these nations. So yes, the idea of British colonization was a bit perjorative because they are trying to regain the glory of the first half of the 20th Century.
More than just the British and French, as other once-colonial powers now long failed cannot see a future for themselves. Sadly it will be even more infected with gathering Islam and publicly decadent homosexuality, which will become a potent social friction as the years pass.
Arabs link their attacks to key historical dates in many cases. For Instance, the 9/11 attack might have been picked for Sept. 11th because the construction of the Pentagon began on September 11, 1941, exactly sixty years before the massive attack on 9/11. October 7th, 2023 was 100 years after the British Mandate became law, on Simchat Torah, which is the Jewish Holiday that signifies when the Torah was given on Mount Sinai. In other words, also the day that the Legal tender for Israel was given to the Jews by God. So yes, I believe there are always reasons that Arabs pick dates to attack. 1973 was during Yom Kippur, or the Jewish New Year, etc.
Simple question to the world: How far back in time? 2000 years ago, the area in question was Roman. There are entire lists of countries that land was controlled by prior to the modern era.
So, how far back in time do you want to go?
I was being nice.
Not to mention that early Arabic lacked diacritics, which of course change meanings.
End game? This is all public relations wrapping Jew hatred into a somehow justified socio-political "thing."
Basic History for the Uninformed:
1. Before Israel, there was a British mandate, not a Palestinian state.
2. Before the British Mandate, there was the Ottoman Empire, not a Palestinian state.
3. Before the Ottoman Empire, there was the Islamic state of the Mamluks of Egypt, not a Palestinian state.
4. Before the Islamic state of the Mamluks of Egypt, there was the Ayubid-Kurdish Empire, not a Palestinian state.
5. Before the Ayubid Empire, there was the Crusader Frankish and the Christian Kingdom of Jerusalem, not a Palestinian state.
6. Before the Kingdom of Jerusalem, there were the Umayyad and Fatimid empires, not a Palestinian state.
7. Before the Umayyad and Fatimid empires, there was the Byzantine empire, not a Palestinian state.
8. there was the Sassanid-Persian Empire before the Byzantine Empire, not a Palestinian state.
9. Before the Sassanid-Persian Empire, there was the Byzantine Empire again, not a Palestinian state.
10. there was the Roman Empire, not a Palestinian state, before the Byzantine Empire.
11. Before the Roman Empire, there was the Jewish Hasmonean state, not a Palestinian state.
12. Before the Jewish Hasmonean state was the Hellenistic Seleucid Empire, not a Palestinian state.
13. Before the Hellenistic Seleucid empire, there was Alexander the Great’s empire, not a Palestinian state.
14. Before Alexander the Great, there was the Persian Empire, not a Palestinian state.
15. Before the Persian Empire, there was the Babylonian Empire, not a Palestinian state.
16. Before the Babylonian Empire, the kingdoms of Israel and Judah were not Palestinian states.
17. Before the Kingdoms of Israel and Judah, there was the Kingdom of Israel, not a Palestinian state.
18. Before the Kingdom of Israel, there was the theocracy of the twelve tribes of Israel, not a Palestinian state.
19. Before the theocracy of the twelve tribes of Israel, there was an agglomeration of independent Canaanite city-kingdoms, not a Palestinian state.
There have been many governments there, but never a Palestine.
"...from the 12th to 8th centuries BCE BC..."
"...after suppressing the Bar Kokhba revolt in 135 CE AD 135"
FIFY
Excellent!
I understand your point, however I have run into this recently, and on a personal level, in the context of my family history.
Someone contacted me personally and is asking for reparations for actions taken 7+ generations back. The assumption was and is that there was wealth (including mineral wealth) accrued by one family. Land has also been accrued by the same family. And an apology is owed by the church where a daughter of the said family attended because her husband was the reverend there.
In the documentation provided to me, the claimant used the term “Colonizer” and “Slaver” (the patriarch owned several slaves which were freed by his widow some time after his death). Note that the slaves were not enslaved by him - he simply bought them.
Those terms are perjorative and emotionally laden, and when someone uses them, I stop listening.
Sounds like South Africa to me - with the key difference being that the European settlers in South Africa (and Rhodesia) were not native to the area. They developed it from wilderness, and that had to count for a lot, but it was essentially empty land. In Israel the Jews not only made the land productive, but they ARE the native population.
I understand your point as well. But the Sun never set on the British Empire, and they colonize to the ends of the earth. And now, they have become a shell of their greatness and tradition. Liberalism has killed them. And to use Israel to revive the last vestiges of their tradition, is, in a word, perjorative. I am selective on which Empire that I hold contempt for.
Because they could.
Israel should never give up Judea and Samaria.
it’s heart of israel.
they already got a two state solution as the Arabs got Jordan.
I don’t mind the annotation “BCE” ... I just expand it to “Before the Christian Era”.
While I wasn’t paying attention did muslim arabs develope a temporal transporter and travel back in time before 610 AD to perform this amazing colonization???
NO...
Every nation under islam today is that way from conquest.
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