Posted on 06/17/2020 8:52:31 AM PDT by SeekAndFind
I found this link about running water in Medieval monasteries in the 12th and 13th centuries.
Running water was uncommon in Medieval Europe.
It was uncommon everywhere.
There were only a few locations where topography allowed the use of running water without extensive engineering projects.
The Romans were the best ancient hydrolic engineers with their use of aqueducts.
https://www.climate-policy-watcher.org/
Is a pro anthropomorphic climate change site, whose reference for sources link back to other pages on the site; not a good reference at all.
There were lavatoriums in monasteries - the water came through lead pipes. The water was not heated. Cleanliness of the water was through the use of sand filters, apparently. How often was the sand changed out? Depended I guess on who was in charge.
In any case, ordinary people, royalty, nobles did not have running water in their homes/castles other than going to pubic fountains. The point here is that indoor heated plumbing was common in the 14-15 century Gold Coast villages.
Portugal was the super power of its day (not France, not Spain) by virtue of its ‘top secret’ maps of the Earth; this was the Age of Navigation, and Portugal reined supreme in that regard until the 1755 Great Lisbon quake’s (8.5-9.0) tsunami destroyed the Library were the maps were kept; it was the most ‘developed’ European nation in the early 16th century. The loss of the maps was a blow like the destruction of the Library of Alexandria so much knowledge was lost.
I doubt that very much, which is why I asked for a source.
It might be the case, as you stated, based on Roman engineering from an earlier time. It was very difficult to make heated indoor plumbing prior to the industrial revolution. It is very labor intensive. The Romans used slaves; the Gold coast was a major slave center, so perhaps they used slave labor to accomplish it as well.
The Romans were the best hydraulic engineers in the ancient world, but it seems unlikely common people had access to indoor plumbing based on Roman aqueducts.
I would love to see evidence of such systems. It would be fascinating to see how they did it.
I provided a link for running water in medieval monasteries. You have provided none for your claims.
Here is another link mentioning 12th century monasteries with running water.
Here is a book which references that water supplies were being built to supply some castles as well as some hospitals and monasteries. I doubt any of them had running hot water; but some certainly had crude running water systems.
More food for thought....:
https://amazingbibletimeline.com/blog/ashanti-empire-trade-slaves-guns/
https://www.ghanaweb.com/GhanaHomePage/NewsArchive/Ashanti-Empire-blamed-for-slavery-180918
“A professor at Harvard University Henry Louis Gates Jr. has blamed the ashanti empire for actively partaking in the slavetrade and profitting from it. He argues that the ashanti empire directly captured and sold human beings for immense economic gain.
The savage chiefs of the western coasts of Africa, who for ages have been accustomed to selling their captives into bondage and pocketing the ready cash for them, will not more readily accept our moral and economical ideas than the slave traders of Maryland and Virginia.”
There is heaps of archeological evidence if you just look for it. I’m not your gofer.
How did they do it? simple as I tried to describe. stone floor over a false stone fool with channels cut in; some modern floor plans use the same methods to heat floors in bath or rooms with stone flooring.
You deem to be one of those people that imagine that if it isn’t on the internet it doesn’t exist - that seems to include everything prior to “Al Gore’s invention”. Try using a real library some day - the internet is not the end and be all of knowledge
You seem to love liberal sites as your references which are fake on the face of them.
I’m speaking about individual homes not castles, monasteries, forts and the like. There is a difference.
not wasting time of this subject any more. Thanks.
Yep... the Black Codes weren’t exclusive to the South.
But somehow when it’s mentioned, it’s always followed by “in the South”.
I once asked an Indian what tribe he was from.
He said that they didn’t have “tribes” like the white man called them. He said his tribe was “The People”. The wolves had their tribe, the bear was a tribe, etc.
“Hmm - so it was ‘The People’? But you still still must have had distinctions between the different groups?
“Well hell yeah. We weren’t going to blunder and steal and kill and take slaves from our own group - but we were all from the same tribe - ‘The People’!”
If the wolves have their tribe, and the bear have their tribe. Whites have their tribe. Indians have their tribe. Blacks have their tribe.
The key question is: If Apache,Sioux, and Nipmuc are all groups in one tribe, are whites and blacks a group in that tribe as well or are we a separate tribe?
And if so, what is the import of that with respect to the Constitution of the United States?
I happen to view whites, blacks, Indians, and Samoans as groups in the same tribe. I wonder if they do?
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