He was convicted of calling his payments “legal fees” when they were not. So, these would have been used in his tax records and his election reports.
So, every time he entered those payments as “retainers” he “committed a crime.”
Do I agree with it as a felony? Do I think he “directed” someone to code these payments that way? Nope. But that isn’t what you asked.
RE: He was convicted of calling his payments “legal fees” when they were not.
Aren’t the payments related to his lawyer for the Non-disclosure agreement? If so, why are they not considered LEGAL FEES?
If not, HOW should it have been classified ( or called in the business record ) so as not to be considered illegal?
Should he have specifically said — “payment to Stormy Daniels to not make public our affair” ?
If so, doesn’t that defeat the purpose of the NDA?
I’m not trying to be cute, I just want to understand that if the NDA is NOT considered legal expense, how should it have been written down in the business records so that it is not a violation?