[FreeReign]

"Resolved. That Donald J. Trump, President of the United States, is impeached for bribery and high crimes and misdemeanors in violation of his constitutional oath of office and that the following article of impeachment be exhibited to the Senate:" [emphases added]

That the President is impeached is a clause independent from exhibition to the Senate.

The will of the House, as written in the resolution, is that the president be both impeached AND that the exhibit of impeachment resolution be sent the Senate. The resolution depends on both clauses to represent the will of the House, not just either clause.

Until both clauses are met, the resolution remains unfulfilled.

It's the Constitution that places the restriction on the Senate. The Senate must use an impeachment resolution from the House.

Exactly where and with exactly what words does the Constitution supposedly say this?

The Constitutional plainly states that it's the House that has the powers of impeachment. You don't think it stands to reason then that the Senate must use a valid House resolution?

[NobleFree]

The will of the House, as written in the resolution, is that the president be both impeached AND that the exhibit of impeachment resolution be sent the Senate.

My point exactly.

Until both clauses are met, the resolution remains unfulfilled. Which in no way implies that there is no impeachment for the Senate to try. The House said they DID impeach and WOULD exhibit; the former is true regardless of their own nonperformance of the latter.