A reverse bribery with no assignable cash value to the “bribe”. And not committed, but only “attempted”. And ascribed to an act more plausibly attributable to a mandate from Congress. How many of our previous Presidents would be immune to such a charge? Any of them?
This is all very amusing, with easily 50% of the Congress guilty of the textbook definition of “bribery”, without any fanciful stretching of the definition.