Why no evidence cited, beyond time frames, of a connection between SSRI’s and violence? Because there is none?
I was under the impression that 100% — or close to 100% — of the school shooters of the late '90s and after had been on SSRIs or were "tapering off" them; at least, that's what I read here, and elsewhere.
I don't know if that's actually true, and our side is susceptible to "advocacy research" as much as is the other side, unfortunately.