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To: rockrr
Yes, it notes it was formed "irregularly", around 1840. It was no doubt created by Northern abolitionists as a derogatory directed at the South, for the same reasons I mentioned above; So that they can introduce the word "slave" into the conversation.

Same pursuit of political advantage, different century.

47 posted on 04/20/2018 8:00:59 AM PDT by DiogenesLamp ("of parents owing allegiance to no other sovereignty.")
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To: DiogenesLamp

It’s a legitimate term that has been a part of the discussion for almost 180 years. Get over it.


48 posted on 04/20/2018 8:05:46 AM PDT by rockrr ( Everything is different now...)
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